Sunday, 30 December 2012


TIME – 45 minutes

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1. Acetylcholine acts through
a.       Alpha 1 and alpha 2 recptors
b.      Beta 1 and beta 2 receptors
c.       Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
d.      Both (a) and (b)

2. An indication for use of propanalol
a.       Bradycardia
b.      Peripheral vascular disease
c.       Prinzmetal angina
d.      Essential tremor

3. Salbutomol is a
a.       Beta 1 agonist
b.      Beta 2 agonist
c.       Beta 1 antagonist
d.      Beta 2 antagonist

4. Treatment for cobra bite?
a.       Neostigmine + antisnake venom
b.      Physoostigmine + antisnakevenom
c.       Neostigmine + atropine + antisnake venom
d.      Neostigmine + adrenaline + antisnake venom

5. Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
a.       Atropine
b.      Adrenaline
c.       Dobutamine
d.      Physostigmine

6. Which one among the following is not an adverse effect of alpha blockers?
a.       Postural hypotension
b.      Bradycardia
c.       Impotence
d.      Nasal stuffiness

7. Which one among the following is a drug of abuse?
a.       Dobutamine
b.      Adrenaline
c.       Amphetamine
d.      Atropine

8. Organophosphates are examples of
a.       Cholinergic agonists
b.      Anticholinesterases
c.       Anticholinergic drogs
d.      Sympathomimetic drugs

9. Drug used in Pheochromocytoma
a.       Phenoxybenzamine
b.      Phentolamine
c.       Labetolol
d.      All the above

10. Beta blockers decrease intraocular tension by
a.       Increasing uveoscleral outflow
b.      Increasing trabecular outflow
c.       Decreasing aqueous humor secretion
d.      All the above

11. Which among the following amino acid is involved in synthesis of adrenaline?
a.       Alanine
b.      Arginine
c.       Phenylalanine
d.      Threonine

12. Latanoprost is
a.       PGE2 analogue
b.      PGA2 analogue
c.       PGI2 analogue
d.      PGF2analogue

13. Enzyme involved in acetylcholine synthesis
a.       Butyrylcholinesterase
b.      Acetylcholinesterase
c.       Choline acetyl transferase
d.      Choline acylase

14. Type of muscarinic receptor in heart and its action
a.       M1,  tachycardia
b.      M2, bradycardia
c.       M3, bradycardia
d.      M4, tachycardia

15. Which one of the following is not an antagonist for acetylcholine receptors?
a.       Atropine
b.      Adrenaline
c.       Hexamethonium
d.      Curare

16. Which among the following is a carbamate and has reversible action?
a.       Carbaryl
b.      Edrophonium
c.       Echothiophate
d.      Tacrine

17. Rate limiting enzyme in noradrenaline synthesis
a.       Theonine hydroxylase
b.      Tyrosine hydroxylase
c.       Dopamine hydroxylase
d.      Dopa decarboxylase

18. Which among the following is the preferred miotic?
a.       Physostigmine
b.      Pilocarpine
c.       Rivastigmine
d.      Tropicamide

19. The miotic (answer for previous question) is useful in
a.       Open angle glaucoma
b.      Angle closure glaucoma
c.       Aphakic glaucoma
d.      All the above

20. Drug used to treat voiding symptoms in prostatic hyperplasia
a.       Propanalol
b.      Ergotamine
c.       Yohimbine
d.      Terazosin

21. Which one among the following is not a treatment of belladonna poisoning?
a.       Gastric lavage with KMnO4
b.      Rest in dark room
c.       Physostigmine
d.      Diazepam

22. sympathetic receptor in bronchi that causes bronchodilatation
a.       Alpha 1
b.      Alpha 2
c.       Beta 1
d.      Beta 2

23. Which among the following is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis?
a.       Anticholinesterase
b.      Atropine
c.       Corticosteroids
d.      Plasmapheresis

24.Which among the following is indirectly acting sympathomimetic
a.       Phenoxybenzamine
b.      Phenylephrine
c.       Dobutamine
d.      Amphetamine

25. Cardioselective beta blocker is
a.       Propanalol
b.      Sotalol
c.       Atenolol
d.      Pindolol

26. Drug of choice for anticholinesterase poisoning
a.       Atropine
b.      Oximes
c.       Pyridostigmine
d.      Tacrine

27. Drugs used in PIPE therapy
a.       Pipaverine and ephedrine
b.      Pipaverine and esmolol
c.       Pipaverine and phentolamine
d.      Phenylephrine and phenoxybenzamine

28. Which among the following drugs is used to differentiate between cholinergic crisis and myasthenic crisis?
a.       Physostigmine
b.      Atropine
c.       Ecothiophate
d.      Edrophonium

29. Which drug among the following is an alpha blocker?
a.       Phenylephrine
b.      Phentolamine
c.       Propanalol
d.      Phenylpropanalamine

30. Which one among the following statement is true about atropine
a.       It selectively antagonizes M1 receptors
b.      It causes hypothermia
c.       It increases intraocular pressure in angle closure glaucoma
d.      It causes a marked increase in gastric pH


31. Which one among the following is a uroselective drug useful in prostatic hyperplasia?
a.       Ergotamine
b.      Yohimbine
c.       Terazosin
d.      Tamsulosin

32. Which among the following beta blocker has alpha blocking activity as well?
a.       Propanalol
b.      Pindolol
c.       Labetolol
d.      Atenolol

33. Which among the following is not an immediate treatment for myasthenic crisis?
a.       Anticholinesterase
b.      Methylprednisolone
c.       Trachaeal intubation
d.      Plasmapheresis

34. Which one of the following can be used as preanasthetic medication?
a.       Glycopyrrolate
b.      Oxybutinin
c.       Drotaverine
d.      Propantheline

35. Not a metabolic effect of propanalol
a.       Hypoglycemia
b.      Improved carbohydrate tolerance
c.       Increased LDL
d.      None of above

36. Pick the wrong statement about Rimonabant
a.       It is a cannabine receptor agonist
b.      It decreases appetite
c.       It can be used to promote smoking cessation
d.      None of the above

37. Tacrine, donepezil are primarily used
a.       As a miotic
b.      As a mydriatic
c.       In myasthenia gravis
d.      In alzheimers disease

38. Tubocurarine inhibits
a.       Nm (nicotinic muscle) receptor
b.      Nn (nicotinic ganglion) receptor
c.       Muscarinic receptor
d.      All the above

39. Dopamine is mainly used in
a.       Hypertension
b.      Asthma
c.       Mydriatic
d.      Shock

40. Drug used in amphetamine toxicity
a.       Caffeine
b.      Chlorpromazine
c.       Chlorphenyramine
d.      Chloroquine

41. Hemorrhagic stroke is a risk associated with
a.       Phenylpropanolamine
b.      Pseudoephedrine
c.       Mepheneteramine
d.      Xylometazoline

42. Beta blocker that causes vasodilatation by NO production
a.       Pindolol
b.      Nebivolol
c.       Sotalol
d.      Carvedilol

43. Which among the following form of cholinesterase reacts very slowly with water?
a.       Acetylated form
b.      Acylated form
c.       Carbamylated form
d.      Phosphorylated form

44. Alpha 2 agonist is
a.       Yohimbine
b.      Clonidine
c.       Prazosin
d.      Phenylephrine

45. Drug of choice for topical use in eyes in acute angle closure glaucoma
a.       Pilocarpine
b.      Latonoprost
c.       Timolol
d.      Betaxolol

46. False statement
a.       Atropine is used in the treatment of mushroom poisoning by Amanita muscaria
b.      Amanita phalloides causes late mushroom poisoning
c.       Cholinergic drugs delay AV nodal conduction
d.      Cholinergic drugs cause vasodilatation through Nitric oxide

47. Which among the following is not a use of adrenaline?
a.       To control local bleeding
b.      Along with general anaesthetics like chloroform and halothane
c.       In cardiac arrest
d.      None of the above

48. Ipratropium is more effective in
a.       COPD
b.      Bronchial asthma
c.       Gastro-intestinal colic
d.      Urge incontinence

49. Pick the right statements
a.       Oximes are useful in all anticholinesterase poisoning
b.      Oximes are ineffective if not used within 24 hrs
c.       Oximes are the first choice drugs for anticholinesterase poisoning
d.      Pralidoxime is effective in reversing the CNS effects of anticholinesterases

50. Drug used to delay preterm labour
a.       Ritodrine
b.      Dipivefrine
c.       Drotaverine
d.      valethemide


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